From: Arlo J. Bensinger (ajb102@psu.edu)
Date: Mon Jul 04 2005 - 18:34:14 BST
[Arlo asked previously]
> > Can you provide any historical example of a time when business, devoid of
"centralized economic planning", created a more-free, higher Quality
> > society for the majority of citizens? Would you say the late 1800's
> > constitutes such a time?
[Platt responded]
> I would say the early 2000's constitutes such a time in the U.S. While not
devoid completely of centralized planning, U.S. business has created a
> more-free, higher Quality society for the majority of citizens than, say, Cuba
or North Korea. Agree?
[Arlo responds]
This is a very complicated reply. Let me try to tease it apart. I agree that
residents of the U.S. enjoy a greater degree of freedom (more-free) than the
residents of North Korea. However, the comparison in this case is invalid, as
the residents of NK are not simply victims of a greater degree of "centralized
economic planning". They are victims of a military dictatorship that controls
access to information, manipulates education, and uses violence to assure
obedience to very restrictive social behavior.
Again with Cuba, I'd agree that our citizens have greater access to material
goods, and partake in a stronger economy. However, as with NK, the comparison
is invalid. U.S. and global trade sanctions against Cuba have done untold
damage to both her economic infrastructure and amount of consumer goods (both
necessary and frivolous) available in her markets. Thus, we can't do outright
damage to a small, island economy with politically-motivated trade barriers,
and then claim that her failure is due to "centralized economic planning".
A more valid example would be either comparing a time in the U.S. when "central
economic planning" (CEP) was either devoid or very minimal (such as the late
1800s) to a time in our history with a greater amount of CEP, and show how the
majority of citizens were better off in one than the other. And indicate what
measures you are using to support such a claim.
Or, if you prefer to use the last few years as your exemplar (which is odd, I
might add considering those blasted "liberals" have controlled everything from
the media to education to government for the past 50 years or so), can you
indicate which measures you'd use to show the majority of U.S. citizens are
better off than the majority of citizens in Germany, Denmark, Sweden or Norway?
Would you include percent living below poverty? Literacy rates? Average income?
Average completion level of education? Access to education? Medical facilities?
Crime? Taxation? Average vacation time? Which?
But even if you choose the second route here, it begs the question as to on what
basis do you ascribe this soley to lesser CEP? If this is the sole causal agent
for greater Quality in the majority of citizens lives, you'd have to make the
claim that the majority of citizens were better off in the 1890s (very littel
CEP) than they are today (much greater CEP). Do you? Can you indicate which
measures or statistics you use to support this claim?
Arlo
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