From: Paul Turner (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Aug 21 2003 - 22:13:13 BST
They both refer to an assertion of a preference, and the preference, as
it is not defined intellectually, must be made on an "attraction" to one
theory over all others, it does not seem to me to be a huge leap to see
that the attraction can be understood as a form of aesthetic. I think
the real MOQ step is accepting that the aesthetic evaluation is not
"just subjective" or capricious but primary and fundamental. Due to your
pragmatic approach, you do not seem to be willing to make that
assumption, and it is something nobody can convince you of
theoretically, it has to be accepted through experience.
I think you are misinterpreting me. I don't think its a big step to see
"that the attraction can be understood as a form of aesthetic," either.
What I object to in the phrase "pre-intellectual sense of quality" is
the "pre-". I think that leads to an appearance/reality distinction. I
think our "intuitive," aesthetic sense of the quality of propositions is
gained over and against the intellectual patterns we've already formed.
If you don't have any, you won't have an intellectual sense of quality.
So, I do think we have an intellectual sense of quality, just not a
pre-intellectual one that applies to intellectual patterns.
Fair enough. The best way I can describe it is as a relationship between
Dynamic Quality and static intellectual patterns. By "pre-" I'm simply
referring to the Dynamic aesthetic aspect; the aspect that doesn't come
from existing patterns; the intuitive evaluation that leads to novel
patterns. You see what I'm saying? It's more down-to-earth than I'm
probably making it seem.
On Poincare, I don't have ZMM with me, so I can't take direct issue with
any passages, but maybe in a couple of weeks, when I have an internet
hookup at home, I'll send in a post on pragmatism's relationship to
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