Anders Nielsen (joshu@diku.dk)
Sat, 22 Nov 1997 03:55:00 +0100
> > I disagree...There's no objects or subjects anyplace in logic. There
> > are
> > just symbols, and rules for manipulating them. And logic is rational
> > thinking par excellence
> >
> So logic needs no logician? Your suggesting it exists in some
> objective state free from subjective awareness. Did logic "exist"
> before Boolean?
> I think Pirsig explored a similar avenue with respect
> to the law of gravity. If I'm not mistaken, he concluded that the law
> of gravity did not "exist" before Newton.
well.. The phenomenon of gravity most certainly did exist before Newton. I
hope we can agree on this. Stuff fell to the ground before newton.
In the same way logic existed before Aristoteles (not Boolean) put the
first theory of logic into writing. People selling goats in the streets of
Athen knew that they couldn't contradict themselves in a sentence, and at
the same time say something true. I mean logic was floating around
"unspoken", before Aristoteles.
(it is certainly a viable point of view to think of contradictions not as
false, but rather as senseless but that's not relevant to this discussion)
But in any event this doesn't even relate to our discussion, because the
theory of gravity most certainly deals with objects as opposed to subjects,
and therefore supports the subject-object schism. While logic per
definition doesn't deal with objects or subjects, but deals with the
truthfullness of sentences.
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