Re: MD Not Struan's and not a Syllogism

From: Cory Ramage (a0406@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Apr 30 2000 - 16:18:51 BST


Hello

Struan wrote:

Phenomena (for Kant) means, 'a thing in so far as it is an object of our
sensible intuition,'
(Kant - Critique of Pure Reason - London - MacMillan - 1963 - pg268-269)
Noumena means, 'a thing in
so far as it is not an object of our sensible intuition,' (Ibid). Notice
that both phenomena and
noumena refer to objects.

Cory:

First, I have never read much Kant. But looking at the way "object" is used
in the quote above I feel it does not refer to an "object" in the sense of
subject-object metaphysics but rather along the lines of "observation" or
"exerience" by our intuition. Could you comment further on this for I do not
yet see how phenomena and noumena refer to objects.

Also, I notice there is no mention of the term "subject" but it is clearly
implied by Kant's use of "our sensible intuition" that a subject must be
present for this phenomena/nounema reference. Insofar as "our sensible
intuition" is entirely subjective, and it is needed for both the phenomena
and the nounema to arise, must we not ask ourselves what "our sensible
intuition" is? Is it phenomena or noumena? And if it is neither, what is it?

Thank you.

Cory

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