From: Valence (valence10@hotmail.com)
Date: Thu Jun 26 2003 - 03:27:05 BST
Hi Scott,
> > Notions of agape were written in the scriptures 1000 years before amor
> > appeared on the scene. How would you explain this chronological
emergence
> > if romantic love is 'included, negated and transcended' by compassion?
SCOTT
> Easily. Agape is an ideal that Jesus told us to strive for, not a reality
in
> all these 2000 years except for a saint or two.
RICK
First, I disagree that compassion has only appeared in "a saint or two" in
two-thousand years. I think that many (if not most) people have compassion
for their fellow man. True, most of us don't practice it on as grand or as
overwhelming a scale as Mother Theresa and her ilk, but I think most
everyone knows compassion to some degree.
Second, I don't think that answers my question. Steve had argued that amor
comes prior to agape and that we learn agape through amor. But I pointed
out that agape precedes amor in the historical record, amor not appearing
until much later (with the troubadours). So I asked how that could be
possible if one must know amor to know agape. If that was the case, you'd
expect amor to be older or at least just as old.
SCOTT
Those who promote compassion
> are not compassionate, just as scientists are not always as objective as
> they claim, priests not as holy, etc., etc.
RICK
Agreed. Agreed. Agreed. People don't always practice what they preach and
no one is as good (or as bad) as he thinks he is.
thanks for the comments
take care
rick
We are much beholden to Machiavelli and others, that write what men do, and
not what they ought to do. - Francis Bacon
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