hi glenn,
Okay I can not get this one through my head yet. I get lost
reading Andrea's solution. This one I can imagine better but
this one I am just wondering is taking half of that 50-50 mixture
definitely 1 tsp? That is when 1 tsp of coffee and 1 tsp of milk
are mixed until milk dissolves is it always 2 tsp?
erin
>I agree with Joćo's conclusion. After the two pourings, the amount of
>coffee in mug1 is the same as the amount of milk in mug2. It follows
>also that the amount of milk in mug1 is the same as the amount of coffee
>in mug2.
>While not a proof, the easiest way to see this is to try simple cases.
>Suppose both mugs have 1 tsp of liquid. When you pour all the milk from
>mug2 to mug1, mug1 now has a 50-50 mixture. When half of that is returned
>to mug2, both mugs have a 50-50 mixture.
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