>Erin, if I understand your question, yes, it is a given that regardless of
>whether the liquids are mixed or not, that the teaspoon is a constant
>volume. There is no 50-50 mixture involved: in the first move, a teaspoon
>of milk is put into the coffee mug, which is then stirred throroughly, and a
>teaspoon of the mixed liquid is then taken from the coffee mug and put into
>the milk mug....
>
>Lawry
>
No I understand what you are saying but everytime I imagine it
the teaspoon of milk + coffee mixture going to mug 2 seems like it has to have
less then the tsp of undiluted milk going to mug1.
I just can't picture how everyone gets them to be even.
So I was asking more with Glenn's adding 1 tsp of coffee with
1 tsp of milk does that always equal 2 tsps liquid. Or does
the process of "dissolving" affect overall volume.
I just can't see how one tsp of undiluted milk put in mug 1 will become
equal to the 1 tsp diluted coffee put in mug 2.
That tsp of diluted coffee has to have some milk taking up the 1 tsp volume.
uuuuuuuuuuuuggggggggggggggggggggg
Serious block on this puzzle,
erin
(>>
>> hi glenn,
>> Okay I can not get this one through my head yet. I get lost
>> reading Andrea's solution. This one I can imagine better but
>> this one I am just wondering is taking half of that 50-50 mixture
>> definitely 1 tsp? That is when 1 tsp of coffee and 1 tsp of milk
>> are mixed until milk dissolves is it always 2 tsp?
>>
>> erin
>>
>> >I agree with Joćo's conclusion. After the two pourings, the amount of
>> >coffee in mug1 is the same as the amount of milk in mug2. It follows
>> >also that the amount of milk in mug1 is the same as the amount of coffee
>> >in mug2.
>>
>> >While not a proof, the easiest way to see this is to try simple cases.
>> >Suppose both mugs have 1 tsp of liquid. When you pour all the milk from
>> >mug2 to mug1, mug1 now has a 50-50 mixture. When half of that is returned
>> >to mug2, both mugs have a 50-50 mixture.
>>
>>
>>
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>
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